I was reading the Huffington Post and I read a comment from an online user regarding gay rights, gay equality etc. The comment said something to the effect of not using Paul's writing as an interpretation of what Jesus said. The crux of the argument was that if Jesus never condemned homosexuality then we cannot say that it is wrong. This argument has a two-fold problem as I see it. It sounds logical on the surface but it is actually quite illogical theologically.
The first issue with the "did Jesus say it" argument is based on a faulty premise regarding the Old Testament. Many that argue that Jesus never condemned homosexuality say that you cannot use Leviticus 18:22; 20:13 as proof that homosexuality is wrong because the scripture in the Old Testament never came from Jesus. A glaring ommission from these Old Testament arguments is the destruction of Sodom and Gommorah which could not be more clear. The men of Sodom were homosexuals, they liked other men, they sought to sleep with the angels that came to rescue Lot and they TURNED DOWN Lot's daughters because they did not want them, they wanted the angels (Genesis 19:4-11).
The second issue with the "did Jesus say it" argument is based on a faulty premise regarding the New Testament. Paul's writings are our best examples of the bible's denouncement of homosexuality as a lifestyle. Romans 1 paints a vivid picture of what happens to folks that refuse to repent of sin, folks that exchange the truth of God for a lie and folks that choose their fleshly desires above what God demands. 1 Corinthians 6:9 is also one of the biblical references commonly quoted from the New Testament. There is also a reference in Jude 7 regarding sexual immorality but it is usually skipped over because it ties in Sodom and Gommorah with the New Testament's rejection of sexual immorality, of any kind, as a lifestyle. Their argument is this: Paul is not Jesus and therefore Jesus did not ever condemn homosexuality. While Paul is definitely not Jesus, he saw Jesus on the Damascus road (Acts 9), he saw the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ (2 Cor 4:6) and He spoke directly to Jesus (Acts 9; Acts 22:17, 22:21, 23:11, 2 Cor 12:9) which, in my opinion, qualifies him to speak for Jesus. He met all of the qualifications of an apostle and according to Jesus Himself, was a chosen insrument (Acts 9:15).
Both of these issues have gaping theological holes. For those that wish to use the Old Testament argument, the problem comes when we speak of the eternity of Jesus and the fact that the members of the Godhead (Father, Son and Holy Spirit) are co-equal and coeternal. Jesus existed prior to time just as the Father did (See John 1:1, John 8:58). In Genesis 1, prior to man being created, the bible says in verses 26 and 27 "Let US make man in OUR own image..." it also says "male and female, He created them". There is much evidence for Jesus in the Old Testament! The Angel of the Lord is a typology of Christ, there are other symbols such as Aaron's Rod and the rock that was in the desert.
For those that wish to use the New Testament argument to say that Christ never condemned homosexuality, you are partially right. The words NEVER came out of His own mouth. However, they did come from Him. Here is why, 2 Timothy 3:16 says that ALL scripture is inspired by God. 2 Peter 1:21 says that no prophecy ever emanated with the person speaking, but God's Spirit moved them and they spoke from God. We know that the bible was written by men that were inspired by God's spirit to write down what God spoke to them. And we know that the Godhead functions in unity. What the Holy Spirit spoke to the writers of the Bible, Jesus and the Father were already in agreement with! A.W. Tozer makes this very plain in his book, "The Knowledge of the Holy". In the chapter on the Trinity, Tozer says this: "The Persons of the Godhead, being one, have one will. They work always together, and never the smallest act is done by one without the instant acqueiscence of the other two. Every act of God is accomplished by the Trinity in unity."(Tozer, A.W., "The Knowledge of the Holy", p. 22)
So while the argument from the gay rights advocates might seem logical on the surface, it is illogical when we consider the true nature of God and the true nature of Scripture. Scripture, although being made up of different genres, exists as a cohesive whole and we cannot use the fact of whether something is in the OT or NT to determine what we will and won't obey. God inspired Scripture such that a story unfolds from Genesis to Revelation. Sure, someone will argue about the Nicene Creed and canonization but I will counter and say that although the Council of Nicea has great relevance, God is the ultimate authority on Scripture and again, inspired even the events that occurred at Nicea. Lack of a true understanding of Scripture generally leads to faulty premises and illogical conclusions. The fact is, the Bible says what it says and there is really nothing that we can do about it. For believers, for people that see Scripture as authoritative, it is logical for us to conceive that Scripture governs every aspect of human life and that we must live according to the Scriptures. This is illogical to those that have the 2 Cor 4:4 complex in which the mind is blinded by the god of this world. I pray that as this debate continues, rather than being lulled to sleep by halfhearted theological discussions,we remember that ALL Scripture comes from God and that there is undeniable continuity between the two Testaments. God bless you.
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